Table of Contents

• 1. Message from Muhammad Faizan (Ex-PAF)
• 2. AFNS overview, role and preparation mindset
• 3. Eligibility snapshot and selection route
• 4. Updated test pattern and timing map
• 5. Subject roadmap: English, Biology, Physics, Chemistry and Nursing focus
• 6. Verbal intelligence guide with all 22 tested areas
• 7. Non-verbal intelligence guide with 9 major types
• 8. Premium quick course and complete course details
• 9. 20+ practice questions for each major section
• 10. Personality screening guidance and sample statements
• 11. 40-day compact plan and 8-week full plan
• 12. Interview, medical, document and final reporting readiness
• 13. 92% passing & 18% selection ratio from 2020 till now 380+ candidates got recommended

1. Message from Muhammad Faizan (Ex-PAF)

I prepared this for AFNS candidates who want a clear path instead of random guessing. The aim is simple: give you a practical, premium, exam-focused book that feels like direct academy guidance. I have kept the wording straightforward, result-oriented and suitable for both beginners and repeat candidates. However this book is not for complete preparartion but a guess or you can say a Model. For full prepartion you have to join our paid courses complete/quick/rapid/special. Use this book actively. Mark difficult questions, revise weak areas daily, and practise under time. That is how selection becomes realistic.

2. AFNS overview, role and preparation mindset

AFNS is not only an entry test. It is a complete suitability process for female candidates who want to join the Pakistan Army nursing stream with discipline, service mindset and strong academic basics. A smart candidate prepares for four fronts together: intelligence, academic MCQs, personality screening and interview readiness. The strongest approach is consistency over intensity. Small daily sessions done honestly beat long irregular study hours.

3. Eligibility snapshot and selection route

Based on the user-provided EduSmart notes and current AFNS preparation material, candidates should always verify the live official notice before applying. In practical coaching terms, the selection route normally moves from online registration to initial computer-based testing, basic medical checks, interview handling and final merit processing.

4. Updated test pattern and timing map

Your required pattern for this guide is fixed as follows and should drive the entire preparation plan. Train exactly according to this clock so that your mind becomes comfortable with pressure.

5. Subject roadmap

6. Verbal intelligence guide: 22 major types

• 1. Analogies
• 2. Classification / odd one out
• 3. Series completion
• 4. Coding-decoding
• 5. Blood relations
• 6. Direction sense
• 7. Sentence completion
• 8. Synonyms
• 9. Antonyms
• 10. Word arrangement
• 11. Alphabet test
• 12. Order and ranking
• 13. Age problems
• 14. Arithmetic reasoning
• 15. Logical deduction
• 16. Cause and effect
• 17. Statement and conclusion
• 18. Day-date questions
• 19. Pair relationships
• 20. One-word logical comparison
• 21. Simple puzzles
• 22. General common-sense reasoning

Verbal intelligence improves when you learn how the examiner repeats patterns. Start by identifying the question family within three seconds. Then solve. Never read slowly like a long English chapter. Sketch blood relations, mark directions with arrows and treat coding questions as symbol changes, not language questions. I will preparae you 100% these types in paid section with repaeting mock tests and practice mcqs as well assignments.

7. Non-verbal intelligence guide: 9 major types

• 1. Odd one out in figures
• 2. Figure series
• 3. Mirror images
• 4. Embedded figures
• 5. Completion of pattern
• 6. Analogy in shapes
• 7. Rotation and direction
• 8. Counting sides / dots / lines
• 9. Block and partition reasoning

Non-verbal performance depends on visual discipline. First check rotation, second check number of elements, third check shading or placement. The best candidates eliminate two wrong options almost immediately. The EduSmart demo notes also emphasise odd one out, relation completion and quick elimination practice. Due to Non-verbal portion many students got rejected becuse of low OIR, Have a good grip on intelligence test to be selected.

AFNS Quick Course Started

Biology Practice – 20 Original MCQs

1. The powerhouse of the cell is:

A) Ribosome

B) Mitochondrion

C) Golgi body

D) Nucleus

Answer: B. It produces most cellular ATP.

2. Mitosis mainly results in:

A) Four haploid cells

B) Two identical cells

C) Genetic reshuffling only

D) Gamete formation

Answer: B. Mitosis maintains chromosome number.

3. DNA replication takes place before:

A) Cytokinesis

B) Cell death

C) Cell division

D) Osmosis

Answer: C. DNA is copied before the cell divides.

4. Insulin is secreted by the:

A) Thyroid

B) Pancreas

C) Pituitary

D) Liver

Answer: B. Beta cells of the pancreas release insulin.

5. The basic unit of heredity is:

A) Tissue

B) Chromosome

C) Gene

D) Nucleus

Answer: C. Genes carry inherited information.

6. Oxygenated blood returns from lungs to the heart through:

A) Pulmonary artery

B) Vena cava

C) Pulmonary vein

D) Aorta

Answer: C. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.

7. Photosynthesis occurs mainly in the:

A) Root hair

B) Xylem

C) Chloroplast

D) Vacuole

Answer: C. Chloroplast contains chlorophyll.

8. The human heart has how many chambers?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Answer: C. Two atria and two ventricles.

9. Meiosis is important because it:

A) Repairs skin

B) Produces gametes

C) Forms antibodies

D) Pumps blood

Answer: B. Gametes are formed by meiosis.

10. The functional unit of kidney is:

A) Neuron

B) Alveolus

C) Nephron

D) Atrium

Answer: C. Nephron filters blood and forms urine.

11. The largest gland in the human body is:

A) Pancreas

B) Liver

C) Thyroid

D) Spleen

Answer: B. The liver is the largest gland.

12. Ribosomes are mainly involved in:

A) Respiration

B) Protein synthesis

C) Digestion

D) Excretion

Answer: B. Ribosomes build proteins.

13. The genetic material in most organisms is:

A) RNA

B) Lipid

C) DNA

D) Glycogen

Answer: C. DNA stores hereditary information.

14. The site of gas exchange in lungs is:

A) Trachea

B) Bronchi

C) Alveoli

D) Pleura

Answer: C. Alveoli are thin-walled air sacs.

15. A balanced diet must include:

A) Only proteins

B) Only vitamins

C) All major nutrients

D) Only carbohydrates

Answer: C. Balance requires multiple nutrient classes.

16. The process by which plants lose water vapour is:

A) Respiration

B) Transpiration

C) Germination

D) Fermentation

Answer: B. Water loss through stomata is transpiration.

17. Which blood cells help in body defence?

A) RBCs

B) Platelets

C) WBCs

D) Plasma

Answer: C. White blood cells are key in immunity.

18. The male reproductive cell is called:

A) Ovum

B) Zygote

C) Sperm

D) Embryo

Answer: C. Sperm is the male gamete.

19. The main site of digestion and absorption is:

A) Mouth

B) Stomach

C) Small intestine

D) Large intestine

Answer: C. Most digestion and absorption occur there.

20. Darwin is associated with:

A) Cell theory

B) Evolution by natural selection

C) Blood circulation

D) Genetics laws

Answer: B. Darwin explained natural selection.

Chemistry Practice – 20 Original MCQs

1. Atomic number represents the number of:

A) Neutrons

B) Electrons only

C) Protons

D) Shells

Answer: C. Atomic number equals proton count.

2. A covalent bond is formed by:

A) Transfer of protons

B) Sharing of electrons

C) Loss of neutrons

D) Gaining of ions only

Answer: B. Covalent compounds share electrons.

3. The pH of a neutral solution is:

A) 1

B) 5

C) 7

D) 14

Answer: C. Neutral water is pH 7.

4. The empirical formula shows:

A) Exact molecular structure

B) Simplest whole-number ratio

C) Only carbon atoms

D) Number of isotopes

Answer: B. Empirical formula is simplest ratio.

5. The bond angle in methane is closest to:

A) 90°

B) 109.5°

C) 120°

D) 180°

Answer: B. Methane is tetrahedral.

6. Oxidation involves:

A) Gain of electrons

B) Loss of electrons

C) Loss of mass only

D) Decrease in valency only

Answer: B. Oxidation is electron loss.

7. The ideal gas equation is:

A) E=mc²

B) PV=nRT

C) F=ma

D) H2O

Answer: B. Standard gas law relation.

8. A base usually turns red litmus:

A) Blue

B) Green

C) Yellow

D) Black

Answer: A. Bases turn red litmus blue.

9. NaCl is an example of:

A) Acid

B) Salt

C) Base

D) Alloy

Answer: B. Sodium chloride is a salt.

10. Avogadro’s number is:

A) 6.02 × 10^23

B) 3 × 10^8

C) 9.8

D) 22.4

Answer: A. It is the number of particles in one mole.

11. The central atom in H2O has which shape around it?

A) Linear

B) Bent

C) Tetrahedral molecule and bent shape

D) Trigonal planar

Answer: C. Electron geometry is tetrahedral; molecular shape is bent.

12. An acid reacts with a base to produce:

A) Salt and water

B) Only gas

C) Sugar

D) Metal only

Answer: A. This is neutralisation.

13. Which particle has a negative charge?

A) Proton

B) Electron

C) Neutron

D) Nucleus

Answer: B. Electrons are negatively charged.

14. The periodic table is arranged mainly by increasing:

A) Mass number

B) Atomic number

C) Density

D) Valency only

Answer: B. Modern periodic law uses atomic number.

15. A catalyst works by:

A) Increasing product mass

B) Lowering activation energy

C) Changing equilibrium permanently

D) Being consumed fully

Answer: B. Catalysts reduce activation energy.

16. The formula of sulfuric acid is:

A) HCl

B) HNO3

C) H2SO4

D) NaOH

Answer: C. Standard chemical formula.

17. The process of losing water molecules from a hydrate is called:

A) Ionisation

B) Dehydration

C) Reduction

D) Sublimation

Answer: B. Hydrated salts lose water by dehydration.

18. Carbon forms a large number of compounds mainly because of:

A) Small size and catenation

B) Colour

C) Radioactivity

D) Inertness

Answer: A. Catenation enables chain formation.

19. The oxidation state of elemental oxygen in O2 is:

A) -2

B) 0

C) +2

D) -1

Answer: B. Elements in free state have zero oxidation number.

20. SN1 and SN2 are terms used for:

A) Atomic models

B) Organic reaction mechanisms

C) Gas laws

D) Electrolysis only

Answer: B. They are substitution mechanisms.

Physics Practice – 20 Original MCQs

1. The SI unit of force is:

A) Joule

B) Newton

C) Watt

D) Pascal

Answer: B. Force is measured in newtons.

2. Velocity changes when:

A) Only direction changes

B) Only speed changes

C) Speed or direction changes

D) Mass changes

Answer: C. Velocity is a vector.

3. The formula F = ma is Newton’s:

A) First law

B) Second law

C) Third law

D) Law of gravitation

Answer: B. Force equals mass times acceleration.

4. Kinetic energy depends on:

A) Mass and speed

B) Colour and volume

C) Charge only

D) Temperature only

Answer: A. KE = 1/2 mv².

5. The rate of doing work is:

A) Energy

B) Power

C) Momentum

D) Pressure

Answer: B. Power = work/time.

6. The acceleration due to gravity near Earth is about:

A) 3 m/s²

B) 5 m/s²

C) 9.8 m/s²

D) 15 m/s²

Answer: C. Standard value near Earth.

7. Heat transfer by direct contact is:

A) Conduction

B) Convection

C) Radiation

D) Reflection

Answer: A. Conduction needs contact.

8. Sound cannot travel through:

A) Air

B) Water

C) Steel

D) Vacuum

Answer: D. Sound needs a medium.

9. The image formed by a plane mirror is:

A) Real and inverted

B) Virtual and erect

C) Real and small

D) Virtual and upside down

Answer: B. Plane mirrors form virtual upright images.

10. Ohm’s law is:

A) V = IR

B) P = VI

C) F = ma

D) W = mg

Answer: A. Voltage equals current times resistance.

11. A device used to measure current is:

A) Voltmeter

B) Ammeter

C) Barometer

D) Hygrometer

Answer: B. Ammeter measures current.

12. The unit of electrical power is:

A) Joule

B) Volt

C) Watt

D) Ampere

Answer: C. Power is in watts.

13. A convex lens usually acts as:

A) Diverging lens only

B) Converging lens

C) Flat mirror

D) Prism only

Answer: B. Convex lenses converge light.

14. Wave length is the distance between:

A) Two random points

B) Two successive identical points

C) Speed and time

D) Mass and volume

Answer: B. For example crest to crest.

15. The force that opposes motion between surfaces is:

A) Tension

B) Friction

C) Thrust

D) Lift

Answer: B. Friction resists relative motion.

16. Moment of force is also called:

A) Torque

B) Current

C) Density

D) Pressure

Answer: A. Turning effect of force is torque.

17. The photoelectric effect supports the idea that light has:

A) Only mass

B) Particle nature

C) Only wave nature

D) No energy

Answer: B. Light behaves as photons.

18. The basic unit of charge is:

A) Coulomb

B) Volt

C) Newton

D) Weber

Answer: A. Charge is measured in coulombs.

19. In series circuits, current is:

A) Different everywhere

B) Same through each component

C) Zero

D) Infinite

Answer: B. Series circuit current remains same.

20. The upward force exerted by a fluid is called:

A) Friction

B) Buoyancy

C) Momentum

D) Inertia

Answer: B. Fluids exert upthrust.

English Practice – 20 Original MCQs

1. Choose the correct sentence:

A) She go to school daily.

B) She goes to school daily.

C) She going to school daily.

D) She gone to school daily.

Answer: B. Singular subject takes ‘goes’.

2. Select the synonym of ‘rapid’:

A) Slow

B) Quick

C) Weak

D) Late

Answer: B. Rapid means quick.

3. Choose the correct article: He is ___ honest man.

A) a

B) an

C) the

D) no article

Answer: B. Honest starts with a vowel sound.

4. The opposite of ‘expand’ is:

A) Stretch

B) Reduce

C) Increase

D) Add

Answer: B. Contract/reduce is opposite.

5. Identify the adverb:

A) Beauty

B) Quickly

C) Honest

D) Teacher

Answer: B. Quickly modifies action.

6. Choose the correct tense: They ___ already finished the work.

A) has

B) have

C) had be

D) having

Answer: B. Plural subject takes have.

7. Select the correct preposition: He agreed ___ my proposal.

A) on

B) in

C) to

D) at

Answer: C. Agree to a proposal.

8. One-word substitute for ‘a person who writes books’ is:

A) Painter

B) Author

C) Editor

D) Reader

Answer: B. Author is correct.

9. Choose the correct passive voice: Ali wrote a letter.

A) A letter was wrote by Ali.

B) A letter has been written by Ali.

C) A letter was written by Ali.

D) A letter is wrote by Ali.

Answer: C. Past simple passive uses was written.

10. Pick the correctly spelled word:

A) Enviroment

B) Environment

C) Envirnoment

D) Envoirement

Answer: B. Environment is correct spelling.

11. The plural of ‘child’ is:

A) childs

B) childrens

C) children

D) childes

Answer: C. Irregular plural form.

12. Choose the conjunction: I was tired, ___ I completed the task.

A) but

B) because

C) unless

D) during

Answer: A. Contrast is expressed by but.

13. The idiom ‘once in a blue moon’ means:

A) Every day

B) Rarely

C) Quickly

D) Happily

Answer: B. It means very rarely.

14. Find the noun:

A) Beautiful

B) Honestly

C) Courage

D) Run

Answer: C. Courage names a thing/quality.

15. Choose the correct sentence:

A) Neither of the girls were absent.

B) Neither of the girls was absent.

C) Neither of the girls are absent.

D) Neither girls was absent.

Answer: B. Neither is singular here.

16. The antonym of ‘ancient’ is:

A) Old

B) Modern

C) Historic

D) Antique

Answer: B. Modern is opposite.

17. Choose the correct modal: You ___ obey traffic rules.

A) must

B) mighted

C) can be

D) woulds

Answer: A. Must shows obligation.

18. Sentence completion: Hard work always brings ___.

A) confuse

B) success

C) laziness

D) delay only

Answer: B. Common logical completion.

19. Identify the adjective:

A) Brave

B) Bravely

C) Bravery

D) Braveness

Answer: A. Brave describes a noun.

20. Choose the correct indirect speech: He said, ‘I am ready.’

A) He said that he is ready.

B) He said that he was ready.

C) He says that he was ready.

D) He told that he is ready.

Answer: B. Backshift usually applies in past reporting.

Verbal Intelligence Practice – 20 Original MCQs

1. If RICE = 1234 and WIPE = 5678, then PRICE =

A) 71234

B) 57234

C) 75321

D) 51234

Answer: A. P=7, R=1, I=2, C=3, E=4.

2. Book is to Read as Food is to:

A) Sleep

B) Eat

C) Throw

D) Measure

Answer: B. Relationship is use/function.

3. Find the odd one out:

A) Circle

B) Square

C) Triangle

D) Orange

Answer: D. Others are shapes.

4. If yesterday was Monday, the day after tomorrow will be:

A) Tuesday

B) Wednesday

C) Thursday

D) Friday

Answer: C. Monday -> today Tuesday -> tomorrow Wednesday -> day after Thursday.

5. Ali is taller than Bilal, Bilal taller than Kamran. Who is tallest?

A) Bilal

B) Kamran

C) Ali

D) Cannot say

Answer: C. Ali > Bilal > Kamran.

6. Finger is to hand as toe is to:

A) Leg

B) Foot

C) Shoe

D) Nail

Answer: B. Part-to-whole relation.

7. Arrange RAPIS to make a city:

A) Paris

B) Pairs

C) Prisa

D) Riasp

Answer: A. Paris is the correct arrangement.

8. A sister of your mother is your:

A) Cousin

B) Aunt

C) Niece

D) Sister

Answer: B. Direct family relation.

9. Choose synonym of ‘honest’:

A) Truthful

B) Weak

C) Angry

D) Silent

Answer: A. Truthful is closest.

10. Choose antonym of ‘victory’:

A) Glory

B) Defeat

C) Honour

D) Success

Answer: B. Defeat is opposite.

11. If 2nd day of month is Friday, 9th day will be:

A) Thursday

B) Friday

C) Saturday

D) Sunday

Answer: B. Difference is 7 days.

12. Pen is to write as knife is to:

A) Cut

B) Draw

C) Count

D) Read

Answer: A. Function relation.

13. If CAT becomes DBU, DOG becomes:

A) EPH

B) EOH

C) FPH

D) EPG

Answer: A. Each letter moves +1.

14. Find the odd one out:

A) Rose

B) Jasmine

C) Lily

D) Iron

Answer: D. Others are flowers.

15. One complete week has:

A) 5 days

B) 6 days

C) 7 days

D) 8 days

Answer: C. Basic knowledge.

16. If all nurses are educated and Sana is a nurse, Sana is:

A) Trained only

B) Educated

C) Senior

D) Uncertain

Answer: B. Simple syllogism.

17. Helmet is to head as gloves are to:

A) Feet

B) Hand

C) Ear

D) Neck

Answer: B. Protective wear relation.

18. The capital of Turkey is:

A) Istanbul

B) Ankara

C) Izmir

D) Antalya

Answer: B. General knowledge type often appears.

19. A boy moving north turns left and then left again. He faces:

A) North

B) South

C) East

D) West

Answer: B. North -> West -> South.

20. Choose the correct pair:

A) Cow : Bark

B) Cat : Meow

C) Lion : Chirp

D) Goat : Roar

Answer: B. Meow is the correct sound.

Non-Verbal Intelligence Practice MCQs

Personality screening and response discipline

The personality part is not a school exam. It checks consistency, emotional balance, teamwork, responsibility, confidence and honesty under quick response conditions. Do not try to act like a film hero. Give mature, believable and balanced responses. Army psychologists usually reject extreme contradiction more than ordinary weakness.

Best response habits:

• Read fast, but do not answer randomly.
• Stay consistent with your values across similar statements.
• Prefer responsibility, teamwork, discipline and emotional control.
• Do not present yourself as perfect in every single statement.
• Never contradict your own interview story, family background or goals.

Sample personality statements for practice (respond from Strongly Disagree to Strongly Agree):

1. I remain calm in stressful situations.
2. I complete tasks on time.
3. I take responsibility for my mistakes.
4. I support team members when work becomes difficult.
5. I can make decisions without panicking.
6. I respect discipline even when no one is watching.
7. I remain truthful even when honesty is uncomfortable.
8. I get frustrated quickly when plans change.
9. I prefer teamwork over unnecessary isolation.
10. I blame others when something goes wrong.
11. I can accept criticism and improve myself.
12. I keep my emotions under control during pressure.
13. I avoid difficult work whenever possible.
14. I stay focused on long-term goals.
15. I am comfortable speaking in front of a group.
16. I keep promises and follow instructions carefully.
17. I recover quickly after setbacks.
18. I lose confidence when a challenge looks hard.
19. I like helping others succeed.
20. I handle disagreements without becoming rude.

AFNS Complete Course Started

40-Day quick course study plan

Use this plan if your exam window is close and you need controlled high-output preparation.

Interview, medical and document readiness

A good candidate not only studies but also presents herself in a mature, organised and disciplined way.

Interview points to prepare:

• Introduce yourself in 15 to 20 seconds.
• Why do you want to join AFNS instead of pursuing a routine civilian path?
• What is nursing to you: service, patient care, teamwork and resilience.
• Why Army life appeals to you: discipline, honour, growth and responsibility.
• How do you handle teamwork and pressure?
• Know your marks, family details, city, education path and future aim accurately.

Medical and physical readiness checklist:

• Maintain healthy sleep and hydration.
• Do not ignore eyesight, dental issues or fitness concerns.
• Carry original educational documents, photographs, CNIC/B-form copies and any required certificates.
• Use simple, neat dress and confident body language.
• Reach reporting point early and keep all papers arranged in one folder.

Mistakes to avoid:

• Studying only favourite subjects and ignoring intelligence timing.
• Reading without solving practice questions.
• Giving emotional or very long interview answers.
• Guessing carelessly in non-verbal patterns without checking direction or quantity.
• Leaving revision for the final two days.

May this guide support your journey toward AFNS success. Study honestly, revise consistently and perform with confidence.

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